12th Standard Biology – Zoology: Human Health and Diseases 50 MCQS QUIZ

12th Biology – Zoology: Human Health and Diseases

5 MCQ Tests × 10 Questions = 50 Questions

Submit each test to display the correct answer under every question.

Test 1 – 10 Questions

1. A 30-year-old woman has bloody diarrhoea. Which organism is likely to cause this illness?

A) Streptococcus pyogenesB) Clostridium difficileC) Shigella dysenteriaeD) Salmonella enteritidis

Correct Answer: C) Shigella dysenteriae

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2. Exo-erythrocytic schizogony of Plasmodium takes place in the:

A) RBCB) LeucocytesC) StomachD) Liver

Correct Answer: D) Liver

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3. The sporozoites of Plasmodium vivax are formed from:

A) GametocytesB) SporoblastsC) OocystsD) Spores

Correct Answer: C) Oocysts

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4. Amphetamines are CNS stimulants, whereas barbiturates are:

A) CNS stimulantsB) Both stimulant and depressantC) HallucinogenicD) CNS depressants

Correct Answer: D) CNS depressants

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5. Athlete's foot disease in humans is caused by:

A) BacteriaB) FungiC) VirusD) Protozoan

Correct Answer: B) Fungi

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6. Choose the correctly matched pair.

A) Amphetamines – StimulantB) LSD – NarcoticC) Heroin – PsychotropicD) Benzodiazepine – Pain killer

Correct Answer: A) Amphetamines – Stimulant

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7. Cirrhosis of the liver is caused by chronic intake of:

A) OpiumB) AlcoholC) TobaccoD) Cocaine

Correct Answer: B) Alcohol

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8. The sporozoite of the malarial parasite is present in the:

A) Saliva of an infected female Anopheles mosquitoB) RBC of a person suffering from malariaC) Spleen of infected humansD) Gut of female Anopheles mosquito

Correct Answer: A) Saliva of an infected female Anopheles mosquito

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9. Paratope is an:

A) Antibody binding site on variable regionsB) Antibody binding site on heavy regionsC) Antigen binding site on variable regionsD) Antigen binding site on heavy regions

Correct Answer: C) Antigen binding site on variable regions

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10. Allergy involves:

A) IgEB) IgGC) IgAD) IgM

Correct Answer: A) IgE

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Test 2 – 10 Questions

1. Spread of cancerous cells to distant sites is termed:

A) MetastasisB) OncogenesC) Proto-oncogenesD) Malignant neoplasm

Correct Answer: A) Metastasis

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2. AIDS virus has:

A) Single-stranded RNAB) Double-stranded RNAC) Single-stranded DNAD) Double-stranded DNA

Correct Answer: A) Single-stranded RNA

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3. B cells that produce and release large amounts of antibody are called:

A) Memory cellsB) BasophilsC) Plasma cellsD) Killer cells

Correct Answer: C) Plasma cells

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4. Which is a non-infective disease?

A) ColdB) ArthritisC) ChickenpoxD) Shigellosis

Correct Answer: B) Arthritis

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5. Rigidity of the jaw muscles is a symptom of:

A) TyphoidB) Kala-azarC) TetanusD) Chikungunya

Correct Answer: C) Tetanus

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6. The site of infection for Yersinia pestis is:

A) IntestineB) LungsC) Lymph nodesD) Nervous system

Correct Answer: C) Lymph nodes

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7. Which of the following is a pandemic disease?

A) PolioB) Swine fluC) DysenteryD) Dengue fever

Correct Answer: B) Swine flu

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8. A carrier for transmitting Entamoeba is the:

A) House flyB) MosquitoC) Sand flyD) Tsetse fly

Correct Answer: A) House fly

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9. Yellowish eyes are a symptom of:

A) PlagueB) MeaslesC) HepatitisD) Sleeping sickness

Correct Answer: C) Hepatitis

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10. Vector Control Research Centre is located in:

A) ChennaiB) DelhiC) PuducherryD) Hyderabad

Correct Answer: C) Puducherry

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Test 3 – 10 Questions

1. Which is a dermotropic disease?

A) InfluenzaB) MeaslesC) Common coldD) Rabies

Correct Answer: B) Measles

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2. Which disease can be confirmed by the Widal test?

A) TuberculosisB) CholeraC) TyphoidD) Hepatitis

Correct Answer: C) Typhoid

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3. Which is NOT a symptom of Kala-azar?

A) AnemiaB) FeverC) Spleen enlargementD) Muscle spasms

Correct Answer: D) Muscle spasms

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4. Cycles of fever in malaria are caused during:

A) Production of gametesB) Lysis of RBCC) Release of sporozoitesD) Sporogony

Correct Answer: B) Lysis of RBC

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5. Which disease was eradicated by immunization programmes in India?

A) ChickenpoxB) SmallpoxC) MeaslesD) Diphtheria

Correct Answer: B) Smallpox

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6. Identify the rat flea vector.

A) XersiniaB) Tsetse flyC) Xenopsylla cheopisD) Musca

Correct Answer: C) Xenopsylla cheopis

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7. Which is a DNA virus?

A) RubellaB) VaricellaC) PolioD) Mumps

Correct Answer: B) Varicella

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8. Which of the following is a type of ringworm?

A) AscariasisB) HelminthiasisC) DandruffD) Athlete's foot

Correct Answer: D) Athlete's foot

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9. Which can lead to nutritional deficiency in the infected person?

A) AmoebiasisB) PneumoniaC) AscariasisD) Tetanus

Correct Answer: C) Ascariasis

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10. Which is a plant with hallucinogenic properties?

A) Atropa belladonnaB) Rauwolfia vomitoriaC) Jatropha curcasD) Pongamia

Correct Answer: A) Atropa belladonna

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Test 4 – 10 Questions

1. Cystic fibrosis is ______ in origin and it is a ______ disease.

A) Fungal, infectiousB) Protozoan, communicableC) Degenerative, pathogenicD) Genetic, non-communicable

Correct Answer: D) Genetic, non-communicable

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2. The mode of infection of cholera is:

A) Droplet infectionB) Through contaminated food and waterC) Through wound infectionD) Through insect bite

Correct Answer: B) Through contaminated food and water

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3. The pathogenic bacterium causing bubonic plague is:

A) Yersinia pestisB) Clostridium tetaniC) Shigella sp.D) Streptococcus pneumoniae

Correct Answer: A) Yersinia pestis

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4. Which part of the body is affected by viral infection in mumps?

A) LiverB) Salivary glandsC) Nervous systemD) Skin and blood

Correct Answer: B) Salivary glands

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5. Which viral disease classification is mismatched?

A) Dermotropic – Skin and subcutaneous tissuesB) Neurotropic – Central nervous systemC) Pneumotropic – Brain and spinal cordD) Viscerotropic – Blood and visceral organs

Correct Answer: C) Pneumotropic – Brain and spinal cord

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6. For the following diseases, the respiratory system is the site of infection, EXCEPT:

A) Dengue feverB) ChickenpoxC) Common coldD) Measles

Correct Answer: A) Dengue fever

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7. A person shows enlargement of the parotid glands. Identify the disease.

A) MeaslesB) MumpsC) Viral hepatitisD) Chickenpox

Correct Answer: B) Mumps

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8. Yellow fever and dengue fever are categorized as:

A) Neurotropic diseasesB) Viscerotropic diseasesC) Dermotropic diseasesD) Pneumotropic diseases

Correct Answer: B) Viscerotropic diseases

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9. The incubation period of malaria is approximately:

A) 10 daysB) 12 daysC) 15 daysD) 18 days

Correct Answer: B) 12 days

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10. Which statement is wrong regarding malaria?

A) In the human liver, sporozoites undergo sexual fissionB) Erythrocytes lyse and release merozoites and haemozoinC) In the mosquito's gut, the ookinete is formedD) Male and female gametes develop in the body of a mosquito

Correct Answer: A) In the human liver, sporozoites undergo sexual fission

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Test 5 – 10 Questions

1. The vector for filariasis is:

A) Culex mosquitoB) Anopheles mosquitoC) Aedes aegyptiD) Tsetse fly

Correct Answer: A) Culex mosquito

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2. Which substance increases blood pressure and heartbeat?

A) LSDB) NicotineC) Adrenaline and nor-adrenalineD) Cannabis

Correct Answer: C) Adrenaline and nor-adrenaline

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3. Continuous consumption of alcohol affects the:

A) HeartB) KidneyC) LiverD) Brain

Correct Answer: C) Liver

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4. Which is NOT a lifestyle disorder in humans?

A) CancerB) DiabetesC) Cardiovascular diseaseD) Lung disease

Correct Answer: D) Lung disease

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5. The substance NOT present in tobacco is:

A) NicotineB) TarC) MorphineD) Carbon monoxide

Correct Answer: C) Morphine

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6. Which is the mismatched pair?

A) Depressant – TranquilizersB) Cannabis – MorphineC) Hallucinogens – LSDD) Stimulants – Cocaine

Correct Answer: B) Cannabis – Morphine

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7. Which is NOT present in tobacco?

A) LSDB) NicotineC) Carbon monoxideD) Both B and C

Correct Answer: A) LSD

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8. Choose the correct sequence with regard to Plasmodium.

A) Sporozoite → Signet ring stage → Oocyte → MicrogametocyteB) Sporozoite → Signet ring stage → Microgametocyte → OocyteC) Sporozoite → Oocyte → Microgametocyte → Signet ring stageD) Sporozoite → Microgametocyte → Signet ring stage → Oocyte

Correct Answer: A) Sporozoite → Signet ring stage → Oocyte → Microgametocyte

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9. The duration of the erythrocyte cycle for Plasmodium ovale is:

A) 75 hoursB) 36–48 hoursC) 32 hoursD) 48 hours

Correct Answer: D) 48 hours

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10. Which symptom is NOT seen in amoebiasis?

A) DiarrhoeaB) Abdominal painC) UlcerationD) Fever

Correct Answer: D) Fever

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