11TH CBSE Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure – 75 QUIZ MCQ Tests

Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure – Theory MCQ Tests

5 Tests × 15 Questions = 75 Theory MCQs

11th Standard Chemistry

Test 1 – 15 Theory Questions

1. According to Kossel and Lewis, atoms combine mainly to:

A) Acquire a stable inert-gas configuration B) Increase their atomic mass C) Decrease their nuclear charge D) Become radioactive

Correct Answer: A) Acquire a stable inert-gas configuration

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2. A covalent bond is formed by:

A) Complete transfer of electrons B) Sharing of electrons C) Loss of all valence electrons D) Formation of neutrons

Correct Answer: B) Sharing of electrons

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3. A coordinate bond is formed when the shared electron pair is contributed by:

A) Both atoms equally B) One atom only C) Neither atom D) The nucleus of one atom

Correct Answer: B) One atom only

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4. An ionic bond is formed primarily by:

A) Sharing of protons B) Transfer of electrons from one atom to another C) Sharing of neutrons D) Overlap of nuclei

Correct Answer: B) Transfer of electrons from one atom to another

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5. The octet rule states that atoms tend to achieve:

A) Two electrons in every shell B) Eight electrons in their valence shell C) Eight protons in the nucleus D) A completely empty valence shell

Correct Answer: B) Eight electrons in their valence shell

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6. Which statement about the octet rule is supported by the source?

A) It is universally applicable B) It is not universally applicable C) It applies only to noble gases D) It applies only to metals

Correct Answer: B) It is not universally applicable

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7. The electron pairs shared between bonded atoms are called:

A) Lone pairs B) Bond pairs C) Free pairs D) Core pairs

Correct Answer: B) Bond pairs

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8. Unshared, non-bonding electron pairs are called:

A) Bond pairs B) Lone pairs C) Ionic pairs D) Sigma pairs

Correct Answer: B) Lone pairs

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9. The number of covalent bonds formed by an atom is called its:

A) Electronegativity B) Covalency C) Polarity D) Bond enthalpy

Correct Answer: B) Covalency

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10. Electronegativity is the ability of an atom in a covalent bond to:

A) Repel electrons completely B) Attract electrons towards itself C) Lose all neutrons D) Attract protons from the nucleus

Correct Answer: B) Attract electrons towards itself

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11. A Lewis structure is mainly used to represent:

A) The arrangement of valence electrons in a molecule B) The mass of the nucleus C) The boiling point of a substance D) The atomic spectrum only

Correct Answer: A) The arrangement of valence electrons in a molecule

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12. In a Lewis symbol, the dots generally represent:

A) Neutrons B) Valence electrons C) Protons D) Inner-shell electrons only

Correct Answer: B) Valence electrons

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13. Which approach is based on the inertness of noble gases?

A) Kossel-Lewis approach B) Molecular orbital approach only C) VSEPR approach only D) Crystal field approach

Correct Answer: A) Kossel-Lewis approach

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14. Ionic compounds are generally stabilized by:

A) Weak van der Waals forces only B) Strong electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions C) Hydrogen bonds only D) Metallic bonding only

Correct Answer: B) Strong electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions

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15. Why do ionic compounds generally have high melting points?

A) They contain no electrons B) Strong interionic electrostatic forces require substantial energy to overcome C) They are always gases D) They contain only covalent bonds

Correct Answer: B) Strong interionic electrostatic forces require substantial energy to overcome

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Test 2 – 15 Theory Questions

1. A bond formed by electrostatic attraction between positive and negative ions is called:

A) Covalent bond B) Electrovalent or ionic bond C) Hydrogen bond D) Coordinate bond

Correct Answer: B) Electrovalent or ionic bond

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2. Which property generally increases with increasing bond order?

A) Bond length B) Bond stability C) Atomic radius D) Number of shells

Correct Answer: B) Bond stability

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3. Higher bond order is generally associated with:

A) Lower bond enthalpy B) Higher bond enthalpy C) No bond formation D) Longer bond length only

Correct Answer: B) Higher bond enthalpy

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4. Higher bond order is generally associated with:

A) Larger bond length B) Smaller bond length C) Zero polarity D) Lower stability

Correct Answer: B) Smaller bond length

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5. Bond length is defined as the:

A) Distance between electrons in an atom B) Equilibrium distance between nuclei of two bonded atoms C) Distance between two ions in solution D) Radius of the central atom

Correct Answer: B) Equilibrium distance between nuclei of two bonded atoms

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6. Bond lengths are measured by:

A) Spectroscopic methods B) Only titration C) Only filtration D) Only gravimetric methods

Correct Answer: A) Spectroscopic methods

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7. Bond enthalpy is the energy required to:

A) Form one mole of atoms from nuclei B) Break one mole of a particular type of bond in the gaseous state C) Melt one mole of an ionic solid D) Remove one neutron

Correct Answer: B) Break one mole of a particular type of bond in the gaseous state

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8. Dipole moment depends primarily on:

A) Only molecular mass B) Polarity of bonds and molecular shape C) Only number of neutrons D) Only boiling point

Correct Answer: B) Polarity of bonds and molecular shape

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9. The expression for dipole moment given in the source is:

A) μ = Q × r B) μ = Q ÷ r C) μ = r ÷ Q D) μ = Q + r

Correct Answer: A) μ = Q × r

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10. A symmetrical molecule can have zero dipole moment because:

A) It has no electrons B) Bond dipoles can cancel each other C) It has no nuclei D) All its atoms are metals

Correct Answer: B) Bond dipoles can cancel each other

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11. Why does CO2 have zero net dipole moment?

A) It is unsymmetrical B) Its equal bond dipoles oppose and cancel C) It has no covalent bonds D) It contains a lone pair on carbon

Correct Answer: B) Its equal bond dipoles oppose and cancel

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12. Which theory helps predict the shapes of molecules?

A) VSEPR theory B) Kinetic theory only C) Gas law only D) Electrolysis theory

Correct Answer: A) VSEPR theory

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13. VSEPR theory considers the repulsion between:

A) Nuclei only B) Electron pairs around the central atom C) Neutrons only D) Atomic masses

Correct Answer: B) Electron pairs around the central atom

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14. The shape of a molecule depends on the number of:

A) Electron shells in the universe B) Bonded and non-bonded electron pairs around the central atom C) Neutrons in the nucleus only D) Isotopes present

Correct Answer: B) Bonded and non-bonded electron pairs around the central atom

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15. According to VSEPR theory, the strongest repulsion is between:

A) Bond pair–bond pair B) Lone pair–bond pair C) Lone pair–lone pair D) Nucleus–nucleus

Correct Answer: C) Lone pair–lone pair

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Test 3 – 15 Theory Questions

1. The correct general order of electron-pair repulsion is:

A) BP–BP > LP–BP > LP–LP B) LP–LP > LP–BP > BP–BP C) LP–BP > BP–BP > LP–LP D) BP–BP > LP–LP > LP–BP

Correct Answer: B) LP–LP > LP–BP > BP–BP

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2. Why is the H–O–H bond angle smaller than the H–N–H angle?

A) O has two lone pairs, producing stronger repulsion B) N has no valence electrons C) H2O is ionic D) NH3 has two oxygen atoms

Correct Answer: A) O has two lone pairs, producing stronger repulsion

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3. NH3 is pyramidal mainly because nitrogen has:

A) No electron pairs B) One lone pair along with three bond pairs C) Four lone pairs D) Only two bond pairs

Correct Answer: B) One lone pair along with three bond pairs

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4. BF3 is trigonal planar because boron has:

A) Three bond pairs and no lone pair B) Two lone pairs and one bond pair C) Four lone pairs D) One bond pair and three lone pairs

Correct Answer: A) Three bond pairs and no lone pair

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5. XeF4 has square planar geometry because xenon has:

A) Four bond pairs and two lone pairs B) Two bond pairs and four lone pairs C) Six bond pairs and no lone pairs D) Only one bond pair

Correct Answer: A) Four bond pairs and two lone pairs

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6. BrF5 has square pyramidal shape because the central Br atom has:

A) Five bond pairs and one lone pair B) Four bond pairs and two lone pairs C) Three bond pairs and three lone pairs D) Six bond pairs and no lone pairs

Correct Answer: A) Five bond pairs and one lone pair

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7. The shape of SF6 is:

A) Linear B) Trigonal planar C) Octahedral D) Bent

Correct Answer: C) Octahedral

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8. The shape associated with sp hybridisation is:

A) Linear B) Trigonal planar C) Tetrahedral D) Octahedral

Correct Answer: A) Linear

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9. The shape associated with sp2 hybridisation is:

A) Linear B) Trigonal planar C) Tetrahedral D) Square planar

Correct Answer: B) Trigonal planar

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10. The shape associated with sp3 hybridisation is:

A) Linear B) Trigonal planar C) Tetrahedral D) Pentagonal bipyramidal

Correct Answer: C) Tetrahedral

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11. The hybridisation associated with an octahedral arrangement in the source is:

A) sp B) sp2 C) sp3d2 D) sp3

Correct Answer: C) sp3d2

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12. Hybridisation is the process of:

A) Splitting the nucleus B) Intermixing atomic orbitals of slightly different energies to form equivalent hybrid orbitals C) Removing all valence electrons D) Converting electrons into protons

Correct Answer: B) Intermixing atomic orbitals of slightly different energies to form equivalent hybrid orbitals

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13. According to valence bond theory, a covalent bond is formed by:

A) Overlap of half-filled atomic orbitals B) Overlap of nuclei only C) Transfer of neutrons D) Complete removal of valence electrons

Correct Answer: A) Overlap of half-filled atomic orbitals

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14. Sigma bonds are generally stronger than pi bonds because:

A) Sigma bonds have greater extent of orbital overlap B) Pi bonds have no electrons C) Sigma bonds contain protons D) Pi bonds are ionic

Correct Answer: A) Sigma bonds have greater extent of orbital overlap

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15. A sigma bond is formed mainly by:

A) Head-on overlap B) Sideways overlap only C) No overlap D) Nuclear fusion

Correct Answer: A) Head-on overlap

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Test 4 – 15 Theory Questions

1. A pi bond is formed mainly by:

A) Head-on overlap B) Sideways overlap of orbitals C) Transfer of electrons D) Overlap of nuclei

Correct Answer: B) Sideways overlap of orbitals

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2. For an internuclear axis along the z-axis, which p orbitals can form a sigma bond by head-on overlap?

A) px orbitals B) py orbitals C) pz orbitals D) None of these

Correct Answer: C) pz orbitals

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3. When orbitals overlap with opposite phases in the appropriate arrangement, the resulting molecular orbital is:

A) Bonding B) Antibonding C) Non-electronic D) Ionic

Correct Answer: B) Antibonding

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4. The electron density in a bonding molecular orbital is concentrated:

A) Between the nuclei B) Far outside the molecule only C) Inside the nucleus D) Only on one isolated atom

Correct Answer: A) Between the nuclei

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5. Molecular orbital theory describes the electron probability distribution around:

A) A group of nuclei in a molecule B) Only one proton C) Only one neutron D) Only the solvent

Correct Answer: A) A group of nuclei in a molecule

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6. The formation of a molecular orbital requires combining atomic orbitals to have:

A) Comparable energies and proper symmetry B) Only different energies C) No spatial orientation D) Different nuclear charges only

Correct Answer: A) Comparable energies and proper symmetry

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7. Molecular orbitals are filled according to:

A) Only Hund's rule B) Only Pauli's principle C) Only Aufbau principle D) Aufbau, Pauli and Hund principles

Correct Answer: D) Aufbau, Pauli and Hund principles

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8. An antibonding molecular orbital is conventionally indicated by:

A) A plus sign only B) An asterisk (*) C) A zero D) A triangle

Correct Answer: B) An asterisk (*)

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9. Bond order is related to:

A) The number of bonds between atoms in a molecule or ion B) Only the atomic number C) Only the molecular mass D) Only the number of lone pairs

Correct Answer: A) The number of bonds between atoms in a molecule or ion

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10. A molecule is more stable when its bond order is:

A) Higher B) Always zero C) Negative only D) Unrelated to stability

Correct Answer: A) Higher

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11. A species with zero bond order is generally:

A) More stable B) Not stable as a bonded molecule C) Always ionic D) Always paramagnetic

Correct Answer: B) Not stable as a bonded molecule

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12. Why does Ne2 not form according to molecular orbital theory?

A) Its bond order is zero B) It has no electrons C) It is strongly ionic D) It has only one proton

Correct Answer: A) Its bond order is zero

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13. The magnetic behaviour of a molecular species is related to the presence of:

A) Unpaired electrons B) Only paired electrons C) Only neutrons D) Only lone pairs in Lewis structures

Correct Answer: A) Unpaired electrons

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14. O2 is paramagnetic because it contains:

A) Unpaired electrons in molecular orbitals B) No electrons C) Only paired electrons D) Only sigma bonds

Correct Answer: A) Unpaired electrons in molecular orbitals

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15. Resonance is used when:

A) A single Lewis structure cannot adequately represent molecular properties B) A molecule has no electrons C) Only ionic compounds exist D) Atoms change their nuclei

Correct Answer: A) A single Lewis structure cannot adequately represent molecular properties

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Test 5 – 15 Theory Questions

1. Canonical forms differ mainly in the arrangement of:

A) Atoms only B) Electrons, while atomic positions remain the same C) Neutrons only D) Nuclei only

Correct Answer: B) Electrons, while atomic positions remain the same

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2. The actual structure represented by equivalent canonical forms is called the:

A) Resonance hybrid B) Free radical C) Ionic lattice D) Atomic orbital

Correct Answer: A) Resonance hybrid

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3. All C–O bonds in carbonate ion can have equal bond lengths because of:

A) Resonance B) Only hydrogen bonding C) Metallic bonding D) Nuclear attraction

Correct Answer: A) Resonance

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4. Hydrogen bonding commonly involves hydrogen attached to a highly electronegative:

A) F, O or N atom B) Na, K or Ca atom C) C, Si or Ge atom only D) Metal atom only

Correct Answer: A) F, O or N atom

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5. A hydrogen bond is:

A) A bond involving partially positive hydrogen and an electronegative atom B) A bond between two nuclei C) Always stronger than a covalent bond D) A metallic bond

Correct Answer: A) A bond involving partially positive hydrogen and an electronegative atom

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6. According to the source, hydrogen bonding is stronger than:

A) Van der Waals forces B) Covalent bonds C) Ionic bonds D) Nuclear forces

Correct Answer: A) Van der Waals forces

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7. Intramolecular hydrogen bonding occurs:

A) Within the same molecule B) Only between different molecules C) Only in ionic crystals D) Only between metals

Correct Answer: A) Within the same molecule

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8. Intermolecular hydrogen bonding occurs:

A) Between different molecules B) Only within one molecule C) Only inside the nucleus D) Only in metals

Correct Answer: A) Between different molecules

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9. o-Nitrophenol is steam volatile mainly because it forms:

A) Weak intramolecular hydrogen bonding B) Strong metallic bonds C) No hydrogen bonds D) Only ionic bonds

Correct Answer: A) Weak intramolecular hydrogen bonding

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10. p-Nitrophenol differs from o-nitrophenol in hydrogen bonding because it tends to show:

A) Intermolecular hydrogen bonding B) Only nuclear bonding C) No intermolecular interactions D) Metallic bonding

Correct Answer: A) Intermolecular hydrogen bonding

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11. Water has a smaller H–O–H angle than ammonia because:

A) Lone pair–lone pair repulsion in water is stronger B) Water has no lone pairs C) Ammonia has two lone pairs D) Water is linear

Correct Answer: A) Lone pair–lone pair repulsion in water is stronger

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12. The dipole moment of a molecule with angular geometry is generally:

A) Appreciable B) Always zero C) Negative only D) Undefined

Correct Answer: A) Appreciable

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13. The dipole moment of a symmetrical square-planar molecule such as XeF4 is:

A) Zero B) Always maximum C) Always negative D) Infinite

Correct Answer: A) Zero

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14. A polar covalent bond is mainly associated with a difference in:

A) Electronegativity B) Atomic mass only C) Number of neutrons only D) Boiling point

Correct Answer: A) Electronegativity

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15. Covalent character of an ionic bond increases with:

A) Greater polarising power B) Larger cation size only C) Smaller anion size only D) Lower charge density

Correct Answer: A) Greater polarising power

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