NEET PYQ REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH 5 Tests × 10 Questions = 50 Questions

REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH – NEET MCQ TESTS

5 Tests × 10 Questions = 50 Questions

Submit each test to see the score and the correct answer directly under every question.

Study basis: Questions are based on the uploaded REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH EXERCISE-1 +2 material, including its NEET-pattern questions and answer keys.

TEST 1 – Reproductive Health Basics

1. Amniocentesis is primarily used for:

A) Analysis of maternal blood onlyB) Withdrawal of allantoic fluidC) In vitro fertilisationD) Studying cells/metaphase chromosomes from amniotic fluid to identify chromosomal abnormalities

Correct Answer: D) Studying cells/metaphase chromosomes from amniotic fluid to identify chromosomal abnormalities

2. A test-tube baby programme involves:

A) Fertilisation inside the female genital tract and growth in a test tubeB) Rearing a prematurely born baby in an incubatorC) Fertilisation outside the body and gestation inside the mother's wombD) Both fertilisation and development outside the female genital tract

Correct Answer: C) Fertilisation outside the body and gestation inside the mother's womb

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3. Study of abnormalities by examining amniotic fluid is called:

A) EndoscopyB) AmniocentesisC) LaparoscopyD) Natal endoscopy

Correct Answer: B) Amniocentesis

4. Which is not a legitimate method for reducing birth rate?

A) Ban on marriagesB) MTPC) Use of contraceptivesD) Late marriages

Correct Answer: A) Ban on marriages

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5. The purpose of tubectomy is to prevent:

A) Egg formationB) Embryonic developmentC) FertilisationD) Coitus

Correct Answer: C) Fertilisation

6. Vasectomy involves:

A) Cutting the fallopian tubeB) Cutting the vas deferensC) Increasing population growthD) Cutting the uterus

Correct Answer: B) Cutting the vas deferens

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7. An IUCD mentioned in the study material is:

A) VasectomyB) Copper TC) CondomD) All of the above

Correct Answer: B) Copper T

8. Successful implementation of reproductive-health action plans requires:

A) Strong infrastructural facilitiesB) Material supportC) Professional expertiseD) All are correct

Correct Answer: D) All are correct

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9. A contraceptive pill contains:

A) Progesterone and estrogenB) Spermicidal salts onlyC) Chemicals that automatically cause abortionD) Only chemicals that destroy the ovum after release

Correct Answer: A) Progesterone and estrogen

10. The partner responsible for determining the sex of the child is:

A) MaleB) FemaleC) Both equally through the sperm chromosome contributionD) At times male and at times female

Correct Answer: A) Male

Submit Test to see your score and correct answers.

TEST 2 – Contraception

1. An ideal contraceptive should be:

A) ReversibleB) EffectiveC) Associated with least side effectsD) All of the above

Correct Answer: D) All of the above

2. A contraceptive pill prevents ovulation mainly by:

A) Blocking the fallopian tubeB) Inhibiting release of FSH and LHC) Stimulating release of FSH and LHD) Causing immediate degeneration of the released ovum

Correct Answer: B) Inhibiting release of FSH and LH

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3. Oral contraceptives contain:

A) ProgesteroneB) LHC) OxytocinD) FSH

Correct Answer: A) Progesterone

4. Amniocentesis can be used for determining:

A) Heart diseases onlyB) Brain disease onlyC) Hereditary disease of the embryoD) All of the above

Correct Answer: C) Hereditary disease of the embryo

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5. Tubectomy as a population-control method is performed on:

A) Both males and femalesB) Males onlyC) Females onlyD) Only pregnant females

Correct Answer: C) Females only

6. Which method is related to males?

A) IUCDB) TubectomyC) VasectomyD) Cervical cap

Correct Answer: C) Vasectomy

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7. Which substance is listed as a male contraceptive in the source?

A) FSHB) LHC) TestosteroneD) Progesterone

Correct Answer: D) Progesterone

8. Which pair of statements about contraception is correct? A: MTP during first trimester is generally safe. C: Copper T is an effective contraceptive.

A) A and CB) A and BC) B and CD) C and D

Correct Answer: A) A and C

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9. Which matching is correct?

A) Pill–prevents ovulation; Condom–prevents sperms reaching cervix; Vasectomy–semen contains no sperms; Copper T–prevents implantationB) Pill–prevents implantation; Condom–prevents ovulation; Vasectomy–prevents ovulation; Copper T–semen contains no spermsC) Pill–semen contains no sperms; Condom–prevents implantation; Vasectomy–prevents ovulation; Copper T–prevents sperms reaching cervixD) Pill–prevents sperms reaching cervix; Condom–prevents implantation; Vasectomy–prevents ovulation; Copper T–semen contains no sperms

Correct Answer: A) Pill–prevents ovulation; Condom–prevents sperms reaching cervix; Vasectomy–semen contains no sperms; Copper T–prevents implantation

10. Which method of contraception prevents ovulation according to the source?

A) PillsB) IUDsC) NorplantD) Both pills and Norplant

Correct Answer: D) Both pills and Norplant

Submit Test to see your score and correct answers.

TEST 3 – ART & IUDs

1. Which technique is stated as banned in India in the supplied exercise?

A) Test-tube babyB) SterilisationC) AmniocentesisD) IVF

Correct Answer: C) Amniocentesis

2. In vitro fertilisation includes which techniques according to the exercise?

A) GIFTB) AIC) IUTD) All the above

Correct Answer: C) IUT

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3. The purpose of tubectomy is to prevent:

A) FertilisationB) CoitusC) Egg formationD) Embryonic development

Correct Answer: A) Fertilisation

4. Copper T works mainly by:

A) Inhibiting ovulationB) Preventing fertilisationC) Inhibiting implantation of the blastocystD) Inhibiting gametogenesis

Correct Answer: B) Preventing fertilisation

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5. The permissible use of amniocentesis is for:

A) Detecting any genetic abnormalityB) Detecting sex of the unborn foetusC) Artificial inseminationD) Transfer of embryo into a surrogate mother

Correct Answer: A) Detecting any genetic abnormality

6. The most widely accepted method of contraception in India, as stated in the source, is:

A) Cervical capsB) TubectomyC) DiaphragmsD) IUDs

Correct Answer: D) IUDs

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7. MTP is considered safe up to how many weeks in the supplied AIPMT question?

A) Eight weeksB) Twelve weeksC) Eighteen weeksD) Six weeks

Correct Answer: B) Twelve weeks

8. The test-tube baby programme employs:

A) GIFTB) ZIFTC) ICSID) IUI

Correct Answer: B) ZIFT

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9. Artificial insemination means:

A) Introduction of donor sperm directly into the ovaryB) Transfer of donor sperm to a test tube containing ovaC) Transfer of husband's sperm to a test tube containing ovaD) Artificial introduction of healthy donor sperm into the vagina

Correct Answer: D) Artificial introduction of healthy donor sperm into the vagina

10. Tubectomy is a method of sterilisation in which:

A) A small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tiedB) Ovaries are removedC) A small part of the vas deferens is removedD) Uterus is removed

Correct Answer: A) A small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied

Submit Test to see your score and correct answers.

TEST 4 – Reproductive Health NEET Concepts

1. Which is a hormone-releasing IUD?

A) Multiload 375B) LNG-20C) Cervical capD) Vault

Correct Answer: B) LNG-20

2. In IVF/assisted reproductive technology, the supplied AIPMT question asks about transfer of:

A) Ovum into the fallopian tubeB) Zygote into the fallopian tubeC) Zygote into the uterusD) Embryo with 16 blastomeres into the fallopian tube

Correct Answer: C) Zygote into the uterus

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3. GIFT stands for:

A) Germ cell internal fallopian transferB) Gamete inseminated fallopian transferC) Gamete intra fallopian transferD) Gamete internal fertilisation and transfer

Correct Answer: C) Gamete intra fallopian transfer

4. Which approach does not give the defined action of the contraceptive?

A) Barrier methods – prevent fertilisationB) IUDs – increase phagocytosis of spermsC) Hormonal contraceptives – prevent/retard sperm entry and prevent ovulationD) Vasectomy – prevents spermatogenesis

Correct Answer: D) Vasectomy – prevents spermatogenesis

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5. Which is a hormone-releasing IUD?

A) Lippes loopB) Cu7C) LNG-20D) Multiload 375

Correct Answer: C) LNG-20

6. Which statement is incorrect regarding vasectomy according to the supplied question?

A) Vasa deferentia is cut and tiedB) It causes irreversible sterilityC) No sperm occurs in seminal fluidD) No sperm occurs in epididymis

Correct Answer: D) No sperm occurs in epididymis

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7. An embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed by IVF is transferred into the:

A) FimbriaeB) CervixC) UterusD) Fallopian tube

Correct Answer: C) Uterus

8. For a male with a very low sperm count, the suitable fertilisation technique is:

A) Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transferB) Artificial inseminationC) Intracytoplasmic sperm injectionD) Intrauterine transfer

Correct Answer: C) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection

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9. Copper ions in copper-releasing IUDs:

A) Inhibit gametogenesisB) Make the uterus unsuitable for implantationC) Inhibit ovulationD) Suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity

Correct Answer: D) Suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity

10. The contraceptive 'Saheli' is described as:

A) A blocker of estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing implantationB) A drug that increases estrogen and prevents ovulationC) An IUDD) A post-coital contraceptive

Correct Answer: A) A blocker of estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing implantation

Submit Test to see your score and correct answers.

TEST 5 – Mixed NEET Revision

1. Which pair consists of hormone-releasing IUDs?

A) Vaults and LNG-20B) Multiload 375 and ProgestasertC) Progestasert and LNG-20D) Lippes Loop and Multiload 375

Correct Answer: C) Progestasert and LNG-20

2. Which group involves a role of hormones according to the supplied NEET question?

A) Lactational amenorrhea, pills, emergency contraceptivesB) Barrier method, lactational amenorrhea, pillsC) Cut, pills, emergency contraceptivesD) Pills, emergency contraceptives, barrier methods

Correct Answer: A) Lactational amenorrhea, pills, emergency contraceptives

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3. Which is a correct statement about IUDs?

A) IUDs never need replacementB) IUDs are inserted by the user herselfC) IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms in the uterusD) IUDs suppress gametogenesis

Correct Answer: C) IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms in the uterus

4. In which techniques are embryos transferred to assist females who cannot conceive?

A) GIFT and ICSIB) ZIFT and IUTC) GIFT and ZIFTD) ICSI and ZIFT

Correct Answer: B) ZIFT and IUT

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5. Which is an example of a hormone-releasing IUD?

A) CuTB) LNG-20C) Cu7D) Multiload 375

Correct Answer: B) LNG-20

6. Venereal diseases can spread through:

A) Using sterile needles onlyB) Transfusion of infected blood and infected mother to foetusC) Kissing onlyD) Inheritance only

Correct Answer: B) Transfusion of infected blood and infected mother to foetus

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7. In the matching of contraceptive methods, Vaults are associated with:

A) Entry of sperm through cervix being blockedB) Removal of vas deferensC) Phagocytosis of sperms within the uterusD) Removal of fallopian tube

Correct Answer: A) Entry of sperm through cervix being blocked

8. In the same matching, vasectomy is associated with:

A) Entry of sperm through cervix being blockedB) Removal of vas deferensC) Phagocytosis of sperms within the uterusD) Removal of fallopian tube

Correct Answer: B) Removal of vas deferens

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9. In the same matching, tubectomy is associated with:

A) Entry of sperm through cervix being blockedB) Removal of vas deferensC) Phagocytosis of sperms within the uterusD) Removal of fallopian tube

Correct Answer: D) Removal of fallopian tube

10. The source's answer key identifies the correct option for the Copper T function question as:

A) Inhibiting ovulationB) Preventing fertilisationC) Inhibiting implantation of blastocystD) Inhibiting gametogenesis

Correct Answer: B) Preventing fertilisation

Submit Test to see your score and correct answers.

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