NEET PCB PRACTICE TEST 100 MCQS QUIZ

June–July Portion Combined Test

5 Theory MCQ Tests × 20 Questions = 100 Questions

Correct answers appear directly under each question after submission.

Test 1 – Theory MCQs

1. Physics primarily deals with the study of:

A) Plants only B) Human anatomy C) Nature and natural phenomena D) Chemical reactions only

Correct Answer: C) Nature and natural phenomena

2. Which of the following is a fundamental SI unit rather than a derived unit?

A) Joule B) Watt C) Kilogram D) Newton

Correct Answer: C) Kilogram

3. The best way to reduce random errors in an experiment is to:

A) Change units B) Repeat observations and take the mean C) Ignore small readings D) Use only one observation

Correct Answer: B) Repeat observations and take the mean

4. Mass of an object:

A) Depends on its location B) Depends on pressure C) Is a basic property of matter D) Changes with temperature

Correct Answer: C) Is a basic property of matter

Study Links:
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5. Niels Bohr's atomic theory was based on the:

A) Classical theory of helium B) Quantum theory of hydrogen atom C) Classical theory of oxygen D) Quantum theory of helium

Correct Answer: B) Quantum theory of hydrogen atom

6. Lightning is historically associated with the experiments of:

A) Ohm B) Franklin C) Faraday D) Thomson

Correct Answer: B) Franklin

7. When two vectors are perpendicular, their dot product is:

A) One B) Maximum C) Zero D) Infinite

Correct Answer: C) Zero

8. A vector can theoretically be split into:

A) Only two components B) Only three components C) Only four components D) Any number of components

Correct Answer: D) Any number of components

Study Links:
JEE PhysicsJEE Chemistry

9. In uniform circular motion:

A) Speed changes continuously B) Speed remains constant C) Velocity remains constant D) Acceleration is zero

Correct Answer: B) Speed remains constant

10. When a stone moving in a circle is released from its string, it initially moves:

A) Radially inward B) Radially outward C) Tangentially D) Toward the centre

Correct Answer: C) Tangentially

11. Friction that acts up to the maximum value before a body begins to move is called:

A) Rolling friction B) Limiting friction C) Viscous force D) Centripetal force

Correct Answer: B) Limiting friction

12. Which statement about rolling friction is correct?

A) It is generally smaller than sliding friction B) It is always larger than sliding friction C) It has no relation to motion D) It equals gravitational force

Correct Answer: A) It is generally smaller than sliding friction

Study Links:
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13. The coefficient of sliding friction is:

A) Measured in metre B) Measured in newton C) Dimensionless D) Measured in joule

Correct Answer: C) Dimensionless

14. Newton's second law implies that a body accelerates when:

A) No force acts B) A net force acts C) Only balanced forces act D) Its mass is zero

Correct Answer: B) A net force acts

15. Which phenomenon is NOT explained as an action-reaction pair under Newton's third law?

A) Rowing a boat B) Motion of a jet C) Rebound from a wall D) A thrown body returning due to gravity

Correct Answer: D) A thrown body returning due to gravity

16. No real body is perfectly rigid because real bodies:

A) Have no mass B) Deform under forces C) Have no volume D) Cannot move

Correct Answer: B) Deform under forces

Study Links:
NEET Practice PapersNEET English Medium

17. In circular motion, work done by the centripetal force is zero because the force is:

A) Parallel to displacement B) Opposite to displacement C) Perpendicular to displacement D) Independent of displacement

Correct Answer: C) Perpendicular to displacement

18. During an inelastic collision of an isolated system, which quantity is always conserved?

A) Total kinetic energy B) Total linear momentum C) Speed of each body D) Mechanical energy

Correct Answer: B) Total linear momentum

19. Momentum is most directly related to:

A) Impulse B) Temperature C) Pressure D) Power

Correct Answer: A) Impulse

20. For two equal-mass spheres in a glancing elastic collision, with one initially at rest, their final directions are:

A) Parallel B) Opposite C) At right angles D) Always identical

Correct Answer: C) At right angles

Test 2 – Theory MCQs

1. A taxon that includes related families is:

A) Order B) Genus C) Species D) Variety

Correct Answer: A) Order

2. Biological names are generally:

A) Only descriptive B) Only local C) Binomial and universal D) Written in any language

Correct Answer: C) Binomial and universal

3. A taxonomic category refers to:

A) A rank in taxonomic hierarchy B) Only a species C) Only a genus D) A habitat

Correct Answer: A) A rank in taxonomic hierarchy

4. A pair of contrasting characters used in a taxonomic key is called a:

A) Triplet B) Couplet C) Genus D) Taxon

Correct Answer: B) Couplet

Study Links:
JEE PhysicsJEE Chemistry

5. In a biological name, the first word represents the:

A) Species epithet B) Family C) Genus D) Order

Correct Answer: C) Genus

6. In printed scientific nomenclature, biological names are generally:

A) Written in capitals B) Italicized C) Written in quotation marks D) Written only in English

Correct Answer: B) Italicized

7. When handwritten, the two words of a biological name should be:

A) Written without distinction B) Underlined separately C) Written in capitals D) Joined by a hyphen

Correct Answer: B) Underlined separately

8. The generic name in binomial nomenclature begins with a:

A) Small letter B) Capital letter C) Number D) Greek symbol

Correct Answer: B) Capital letter

Study Links:
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9. The specific epithet normally begins with a:

A) Capital letter B) Small letter C) Number D) Roman numeral

Correct Answer: B) Small letter

10. The term 'taxon' can refer to:

A) Only species B) Only genus and species C) Any rank in a taxonomic hierarchy D) Only phylum

Correct Answer: C) Any rank in a taxonomic hierarchy

11. The plant equivalent of the animal taxonomic rank 'phylum' is:

A) Order B) Division C) Family D) Genus

Correct Answer: B) Division

12. A herbarium sheet normally does NOT record the:

A) Date of collection B) Collector's name C) Local name D) Height of the entire plant

Correct Answer: D) Height of the entire plant

Study Links:
NEET Practice PapersNEET English Medium

13. Classification is useful because it:

A) Eliminates diversity B) Groups organisms into categories for systematic study C) Prevents naming organisms D) Makes all organisms identical

Correct Answer: B) Groups organisms into categories for systematic study

14. Each individual statement in a taxonomic key is called a:

A) Lead B) Species C) Family D) Division

Correct Answer: A) Lead

15. The third name in trinomial nomenclature commonly represents a:

A) Kingdom B) Class C) Subspecies D) Family

Correct Answer: C) Subspecies

16. The suffix '-oideae' is used for a plant:

A) Family B) Subfamily C) Order D) Class

Correct Answer: B) Subfamily

Study Links:
JEE PhysicsJEE Chemistry

17. Species are considered dynamic groups because they:

A) Never change B) May change over time through variation C) Have no heredity D) Cannot reproduce

Correct Answer: B) May change over time through variation

18. Biological museums commonly preserve specimens for:

A) Study and reference B) Food production C) Only decoration D) Industrial processing

Correct Answer: A) Study and reference

19. Insects in biological museums are commonly preserved after:

A) Boiling only B) Collecting, killing and pinning C) Drying as herbarium sheets D) Freezing without preparation

Correct Answer: B) Collecting, killing and pinning

20. Museums may contain collections of:

A) Only living animals B) Only seeds C) Animal skeletons D) Only microorganisms

Correct Answer: C) Animal skeletons

Test 3 – Theory MCQs

1. Mycoplasmas are classified under kingdom:

A) Monera B) Protista C) Fungi D) Plantae

Correct Answer: A) Monera

2. Viruses outside a living cell can occur as:

A) Active cellular organisms B) Inert crystalline structures C) Multicellular colonies D) Fungal hyphae

Correct Answer: B) Inert crystalline structures

3. Viruses are best described as:

A) Cellular plants B) Non-cellular infectious entities C) Prokaryotic fungi D) Free-living eukaryotes

Correct Answer: B) Non-cellular infectious entities

4. Cyanobacteria belong to kingdom:

A) Monera B) Protista C) Plantae D) Fungi

Correct Answer: A) Monera

Study Links:
Ravi Test Papers .inRavi Test Papers

5. Mycorrhiza is an association between:

A) Fungi and roots of higher plants B) Algae and protozoa C) Bacteria and viruses D) Two fungi only

Correct Answer: A) Fungi and roots of higher plants

6. Lichens represent a symbiotic association between:

A) Algae and fungi B) Fungi and animals C) Bacteria and animals D) Algae and protozoa

Correct Answer: A) Algae and fungi

7. Citric acid is commercially produced using:

A) Aspergillus niger B) Paramecium C) Nostoc D) Mycoplasma

Correct Answer: A) Aspergillus niger

8. Yeast is:

A) Always filamentous B) A unicellular fungus C) A cyanobacterium D) A protozoan

Correct Answer: B) A unicellular fungus

Study Links:
NEET Practice PapersNEET English Medium

9. Fungal cell walls commonly contain:

A) Pure cellulose only B) Chitin and polysaccharides C) Peptidoglycan only D) Lignin only

Correct Answer: B) Chitin and polysaccharides

10. In Paramecium, genetic information involved in reproduction is associated mainly with the:

A) Micronucleus B) Cell wall C) Chloroplast D) Vacuole

Correct Answer: A) Micronucleus

11. Fimbriae in some bacteria help in:

A) Photosynthesis B) Attachment to surfaces or host tissues C) Protein digestion D) Spore germination

Correct Answer: B) Attachment to surfaces or host tissues

12. Phylogeny refers to the:

A) Chemical composition of organisms B) Evolutionary history C) Geographical location only D) Method of preservation

Correct Answer: B) Evolutionary history

Study Links:
JEE PhysicsJEE Chemistry

13. Peat moss is:

A) Sphagnum B) Dryopteris C) Chara D) Ulothrix

Correct Answer: A) Sphagnum

14. Dense mats of mosses help prevent:

A) Photosynthesis B) Soil erosion C) Seed formation D) Pollination

Correct Answer: B) Soil erosion

15. Artificial systems of plant classification are limited because vegetative characters are often:

A) Unaffected by environment B) Affected by environment C) Absent in plants D) Identical in all species

Correct Answer: B) Affected by environment

16. In gymnosperms, endosperm is formed:

A) Only after double fertilization B) Before fertilization as female gametophyte tissue C) By bacterial action D) Outside the ovule

Correct Answer: B) Before fertilization as female gametophyte tissue

Study Links:
Ravi Test Papers .inRavi Test Papers

17. A cup-shaped chloroplast is characteristic of:

A) Spirogyra B) Chlamydomonas C) Chara D) Funaria

Correct Answer: B) Chlamydomonas

18. The deepest-growing marine algae are generally:

A) Green algae B) Red algae C) Golden algae D) Blue-green algae

Correct Answer: B) Red algae

19. The main plant body of pteridophytes is the:

A) Gametophyte only B) Sporophyte differentiated into roots, stem and leaves C) Undifferentiated thallus D) Seed

Correct Answer: B) Sporophyte differentiated into roots, stem and leaves

20. Heterospory is found in:

A) Selaginella and Salvinia B) Lycopodium and Pteris only C) All bryophytes D) All algae

Correct Answer: A) Selaginella and Salvinia

Test 4 – Theory MCQs

1. A concentration unit that does not change with temperature is:

A) Molarity B) Normality C) Molality D) Volume percent

Correct Answer: C) Molality

2. The law of multiple proportions deals with:

A) Simple whole-number ratios of masses of one element combining with a fixed mass of another B) Conservation of charge only C) Equal gas volumes only D) Constant temperature only

Correct Answer: A) Simple whole-number ratios of masses of one element combining with a fixed mass of another

3. According to Bohr's model, the energy of an electron orbit generally becomes less negative as:

A) n increases B) n decreases C) Atomic number becomes zero D) The electron enters the nucleus

Correct Answer: A) n increases

4. The Heisenberg uncertainty principle relates uncertainties in:

A) Position and momentum B) Mass and charge C) Temperature and pressure D) Volume and density

Correct Answer: A) Position and momentum

Study Links:
NEET Practice PapersNEET English Medium

5. The visible region is:

A) The entire electromagnetic spectrum B) A small portion of the electromagnetic spectrum detectable by human eyes C) Only infrared radiation D) Only ultraviolet radiation

Correct Answer: B) A small portion of the electromagnetic spectrum detectable by human eyes

6. For transition elements, the differentiating electron generally enters the:

A) (n-1)d subshell B) (n-2)d subshell C) ns only D) np only

Correct Answer: A) (n-1)d subshell

7. Across a period from left to right, metallic character generally:

A) Increases B) Decreases C) Remains exactly constant D) Becomes infinite

Correct Answer: B) Decreases

8. Down a group, the basic character of metallic oxides generally:

A) Decreases B) Increases C) Disappears completely D) Remains identical

Correct Answer: B) Increases

Study Links:
JEE PhysicsJEE Chemistry

9. The modern periodic law relates properties of elements to their:

A) Atomic masses only B) Atomic numbers C) Neutron numbers only D) Densities

Correct Answer: B) Atomic numbers

10. Compared with metallic elements, non-metallic elements are:

A) More numerous B) Generally fewer in number C) Exactly equal in number D) Absent from the periodic table

Correct Answer: B) Generally fewer in number

11. An alkali metal has a characteristic outer electronic configuration of:

A) ns¹ B) ns²np⁵ C) ns²np⁶ D) (n-1)d¹⁰ns²

Correct Answer: A) ns¹

12. Halogens typically have the outer configuration:

A) ns¹ B) ns²np⁵ C) ns²np¹ D) ns²

Correct Answer: B) ns²np⁵

Study Links:
Ravi Test Papers .inRavi Test Papers

13. The number of significant figures in a calculated multiplication result is limited by the factor with:

A) The greatest number of significant figures B) The fewest significant figures C) The greatest numerical value D) The smallest unit

Correct Answer: B) The fewest significant figures

14. A mole is used primarily to express:

A) Temperature B) Amount of substance C) Pressure D) Density

Correct Answer: B) Amount of substance

15. Avogadro's concept is useful because chemical samples contain:

A) Only a few particles B) Extremely large numbers of atoms or molecules C) No atoms D) Only electrons

Correct Answer: B) Extremely large numbers of atoms or molecules

16. During electrolysis, electric charge is associated with the transfer of:

A) Electrons B) Neutrons C) Photons only D) Sound waves

Correct Answer: A) Electrons

Study Links:
NEET Practice PapersNEET English Medium

17. An alpha particle is essentially a:

A) Hydrogen nucleus B) Helium nucleus C) Electron D) Photon

Correct Answer: B) Helium nucleus

18. The carbon family belongs to periodic table group:

A) 1 B) 2 C) 14 D) 18

Correct Answer: C) 14

19. The energy of a photon is proportional to its:

A) Frequency B) Mass C) Volume D) Density

Correct Answer: A) Frequency

20. In the photoelectric effect, the minimum frequency needed for electron emission is called the:

A) Resonance frequency B) Threshold frequency C) Audio frequency D) Orbital frequency

Correct Answer: B) Threshold frequency

Test 5 – Theory MCQs

1. A rigid body is ideally defined as one in which distances between constituent particles:

A) Continuously change B) Remain unchanged C) Become zero D) Depend on temperature only

Correct Answer: B) Remain unchanged

2. Static friction is called a self-adjusting force because it:

A) Always equals weight B) Adjusts up to a limiting value to oppose impending motion C) Never changes D) Acts only on rolling bodies

Correct Answer: B) Adjusts up to a limiting value to oppose impending motion

3. The limiting friction is experimentally found to depend on the:

A) Normal reaction B) Colour of the body C) Volume only D) Time of day

Correct Answer: A) Normal reaction

4. The coefficient of friction is a ratio of:

A) Two forces B) Force and distance C) Energy and time D) Mass and velocity

Correct Answer: A) Two forces

Study Links:
JEE PhysicsJEE Chemistry

5. In an isolated collision, conservation of linear momentum follows because:

A) External net force is absent B) Kinetic energy must increase C) Mass disappears D) Temperature is fixed

Correct Answer: A) External net force is absent

6. An elastic collision differs from an inelastic collision because in an elastic collision:

A) Momentum is not conserved B) Total kinetic energy is conserved C) Mass is not conserved D) Bodies must stick together

Correct Answer: B) Total kinetic energy is conserved

7. A taxonomic key identifies organisms mainly using:

A) Contrasting characters B) Random names C) Only habitat D) Only body size

Correct Answer: A) Contrasting characters

8. Scientific names are universal primarily because they:

A) Avoid dependence on local common names B) Are different in every country C) Use only numbers D) Change daily

Correct Answer: A) Avoid dependence on local common names

Study Links:
Ravi Test Papers .inRavi Test Papers

9. A species is commonly recognized as a group of organisms sharing:

A) Fundamental similarities B) No similarities C) Only the same habitat D) Only the same colour

Correct Answer: A) Fundamental similarities

10. Specific epithets such as indica, leo and tuberosum represent the:

A) First part of a binomial name B) Second component of a biological name C) Family name D) Order name

Correct Answer: B) Second component of a biological name

11. The F-factor of bacteria is:

A) A self-replicating DNA element associated with fertility B) A fungal spore C) A chloroplast D) A ribosome

Correct Answer: A) A self-replicating DNA element associated with fertility

12. The bacterial sex pilus assists in:

A) Cell-to-cell contact and genetic transfer B) Photosynthesis C) Respiration only D) Formation of chlorophyll

Correct Answer: A) Cell-to-cell contact and genetic transfer

Study Links:
NEET Practice PapersNEET English Medium

13. Mycoplasma is notable for:

A) Possessing a rigid cellulose wall B) Lacking a conventional cell wall C) Being a multicellular fungus D) Having chloroplasts

Correct Answer: B) Lacking a conventional cell wall

14. Red algae generally reproduce sexually using:

A) Motile gametes B) Non-motile gametes C) Flagellated spores only D) Bacterial conjugation

Correct Answer: B) Non-motile gametes

15. Heterospory means production of:

A) Only one type of spore B) Two different types/sizes of spores C) Seeds without spores D) Only pollen grains

Correct Answer: B) Two different types/sizes of spores

16. Heterospory is evolutionarily important because it is associated with the origin of:

A) Seed habit B) Cell walls C) Chlorophyll D) Roots in algae

Correct Answer: A) Seed habit

Study Links:
JEE PhysicsJEE Chemistry

17. Methanogens are important in the production of:

A) Biogas B) Oxygen gas C) Citric acid D) Penicillin

Correct Answer: A) Biogas

18. A haplontic life cycle is common in:

A) Many algae B) All mammals C) All gymnosperms D) All flowering plants

Correct Answer: A) Many algae

19. Natural classification differs from a simple artificial system because it considers:

A) A larger set of meaningful characters B) Only one superficial character C) No characters D) Only plant height

Correct Answer: A) A larger set of meaningful characters

20. The fundamental purpose of biological classification is to:

A) Organize diversity for systematic study B) Eliminate species C) Prevent evolution D) Replace nomenclature

Correct Answer: A) Organize diversity for systematic study

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