NEET Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties 4 Theory MCQ Tests × 15 Questions = 60 Questions

Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

4 Theory MCQ Tests × 15 Questions = 60 Questions

Correct answers are shown directly under the questions after submitting each test.

Test 1 – Theory MCQs

1. The molecular formulae of the chlorides of Eka-Aluminium and Eka-Silicon respectively are:

A. GaCl3 and SiCl4 B. GaCl3 and AlCl3 C. AlCl3 and SiCl4 D. GaCl3 and GeCl4

2. Representative elements belong to:

A. s- and p-blocks B. p- and d-blocks C. f-block only D. d- and f-blocks

3. The tenth element in the periodic table resembles the elements with atomic numbers:

A. 2 and 30 B. 8 and 18 C. 2 and 54 D. 8 and 54

4. The elements with atomic numbers 9, 17, 35, 53 and 85 belong to:

A. Alkali metals B. Alkaline earth metals C. Halogens D. Noble gases

5. Element Z = 114 belongs to which family/group?

A. Halogen family B. Carbon family C. Oxygen family D. Nitrogen family

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6. The most abundant element in the universe is thought to be:

A. Carbon B. Oxygen C. Hydrogen D. Nitrogen

7. Element with atomic number 47 belongs to the period and group:

A. 4th, 12th B. 4th, 11th C. 5th, 12th D. 5th, 11th

8. Which atomic number represents a metal?

A. 32 B. 34 C. 36 D. 38

9. The IUPAC name given in the source for element 114 is:

A. Unununnium B. Unnilquadium C. Ununquadium D. Unnilennium

10. Element with atomic number 118 belongs to the:

A. Alkali metals B. Noble gases C. Lanthanides D. Transition elements

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11. An element with atomic number 33 is placed in the:

A. 1st group B. 3rd group C. 5th group D. 7th group

12. The long form of the periodic table consists of:

A. 7 periods and 8 groups B. 7 periods and 18 groups C. 8 periods and 18 groups D. 18 periods and 8 groups

13. Elements of which group form anions most readily?

A. Oxygen family B. Nitrogen family C. Halogens D. Alkali metals

14. An element with valence configuration ns2np3 belongs to the:

A. 2nd group B. 5th group C. 3rd group D. 7th group

15. An element with atomic number 56 belongs to the:

A. p-block B. d-block C. f-block D. s-block

Test 2 – Theory MCQs

1. When an electron is removed from an atom, its energy:

A. Increases B. Decreases C. Remains the same D. Becomes zero

2. Ionisation energy decreases down a group mainly due to an increase in:

A. Nuclear charge only B. Atomic size C. Effective nuclear charge D. Electronegativity

3. The least ionisation potential among Ne, N, O and F is that of:

A. Ne B. N C. O D. F

4. For noble gases, the radius generally considered is the:

A. Covalent radius B. Metallic radius C. van der Waals radius D. Ionic radius

5. Ionic radii are generally:

A. Inversely proportional to effective nuclear charge B. Directly proportional to effective nuclear charge C. Directly proportional to the square of effective nuclear charge D. Independent of nuclear charge

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6. The screening effect of inner electrons causes:

A. A decrease in ionisation energy B. An increase in ionisation energy C. No effect on ionisation energy D. An increase in nuclear attraction

7. The second ionisation potential is generally:

A. Less than the first B. Equal to the first C. Greater than the first D. Always zero

8. The pair of elements having approximately equal ionisation potential is:

A. Al and Ga B. Al and Si C. Al and Mg D. Al and B

9. Which statement about ionic radii is incorrect according to the source?

A. Ti4+ < Mn4+ B. 35Cl- < 37Cl- C. K+ > Cl- D. P3+ > P5+

10. Which element has the maximum first ionisation potential among V, Ti, Cr and Mn?

A. V B. Ti C. Cr D. Mn

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11. The van der Waals radius of fluorine shown in the source figure is:

A. 219 pm B. 75 pm C. 147 pm D. 144 pm

12. Which pair is stated to have the same size?

A. Fe2+ and Ni2+ B. Zr4+ and Ti4+ C. Zr4+ and Hf4+ D. Zn2+ and Hf4+

13. The correct decreasing order of first ionisation enthalpy for the selected second-period elements is:

A. Be > B > C > N > F B. N > F > C > B > Be C. F > N > C > Be > B D. N > F > B > C > Be

14. The correct order of second ionisation potential of C, N, O and F is:

A. O > N > F > C B. O > F > N > C C. F > O > N > C D. C > N > O > F

15. Which statement is wrong?

A. van der Waals radius of iodine is greater than its covalent radius B. All isoelectronic ions belong to the same period C. IE1 of N is higher than O D. Electron gain enthalpy of N is almost zero

Test 3 – Theory MCQs

1. Atomic sizes are not significantly different for the series:

A. Bi, Na, K, Rb B. Na, Mg, Al, Si C. O, S, Sc, Te D. Cr, Mn, Fe, Co

2. Electron affinity is maximum for:

A. Cl B. F C. Br D. I

3. The electron affinity of inert gases is generally:

A. Zero B. High C. Negative D. Always positive

4. An atom with high electronegativity generally has:

A. Large size B. High ionisation potential C. Low electron affinity D. Low ionisation potential

5. The stability of the +1 oxidation state increases in the sequence:

A. Tl < In < Ga < Al B. In < Tl < Ga < Al C. Ga < In < Al < Tl D. Al < Ga < In < Tl

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6. Halogens and chalcogens have highly ______ electron gain enthalpy.

A. Negative B. Positive C. Zero D. Infinite

7. Which of the following is basic?

A. SiO2 B. SO2 C. CO2 D. Na2O

8. Which oxide is amphoteric?

A. Na2O B. SO2 C. B2O3 D. ZnO

9. An element with configuration ns2np1 forms an oxide that is:

A. XO3 and basic B. XO3 and acidic C. X2O3 and amphoteric D. X2O3 and basic

10. Which is the chemically most active non-metal?

A. S B. O C. F D. N

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11. Which is not the correct order for the stated property?

A. Ba > Sr > Mg — atomic radius B. F > O > N — first ionisation enthalpy C. Cl > F > I — electron affinity D. O > Se > Te — electronegativity

12. The correct order of acidic strength given in the source is:

A. Cl2O7 > SO2 > P4O10 B. K2O > CaO > MgO C. CO2 > N2O5 > SO3 D. Na2O > MgO > Al2O3

13. The elements with zero electron affinity are:

A. Boron and Carbon B. Beryllium and Helium C. Lithium and Sodium D. Fluorine and Chlorine

14. Which statement is true about electronegativity?

A. P > Si B. C > N C. Br > Cl D. Sr > Ca

15. The element having very high ionisation energy but zero electron affinity is:

A. H B. F C. He D. B

Test 4 – Theory MCQs

1. The first electron affinity process H(g) + e- → H-(g) has ΔH that is:

A. Positive B. Negative C. Zero D. Unpredictable

2. The first attempt towards classification of elements was made by Johann W. Dobereiner in:

A. 1801 B. 1817 C. 1865 D. 1913

3. In Dobereiner's triads, the atomic weight of the middle element was approximately:

A. The sum of the other two B. The average of the other two C. Twice the first element D. Half the last element

4. Newland observed that the first and eighth elements in an increasing atomic-weight series had:

A. Identical atomic masses B. Similar properties C. The same atomic number D. The same valency only

5. Mendeleev's periodic law states that physical and chemical properties are periodic functions of:

A. Atomic numbers B. Atomic weights C. Neutron numbers D. Mass defects

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6. In Mendeleev's table, vertical columns were called:

A. Periods B. Groups C. Blocks D. Series

7. The modern periodic law states that physical and chemical properties are periodic functions of:

A. Atomic weights B. Atomic numbers C. Atomic volumes D. Atomic masses only

8. The modern periodic table contains how many groups?

A. 8 B. 16 C. 18 D. 32

9. The modern periodic table contains how many periods?

A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 18

10. The period number corresponds to the:

A. Lowest principal quantum number B. Highest principal quantum number C. Magnetic quantum number D. Atomic mass

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11. The first period contains:

A. 2 elements B. 8 elements C. 18 elements D. 32 elements

12. The sixth and seventh periods each have a theoretical maximum of:

A. 8 elements B. 18 elements C. 32 elements D. 36 elements

13. The elements of groups 1 and 2 belong to the:

A. s-block B. p-block C. d-block D. f-block

14. The elements of groups 13 to 18 belong to the:

A. s-block B. p-block C. d-block D. f-block

15. The d-block elements occupy groups:

A. 1–2 B. 3–12 C. 13–18 D. 4–14

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